I invite all (four) of my readers to consider this:
How is it possible for God, who is, by definition, outside of time, able to predestine, foreknow, or elect anything? By definition, it is impossible to ascribe ANY ATTRIBUTE (place, name, action, will, thought, force, etc.) to that which does not exist. Thus, if God “foreknows”, how is that reconciled outside of the abstract construct of “time”? What I mean is, God cannot foreknow, but simply “know”, because there is no future with God (He is the I AM, not I was or will be) anything He declares IS already. Thus, all ideas of “pre” or “fore”, can only be rationally explained via the reference of man’s temporal existence. Thus, “FOREknowledge”, PREordinating” is a doctrine that is unique to MAN’S understanding of his reality. Since there is no “when” to God’s actions outside of man’s particular frame of reference, it is impossible to argue that God determined ANYTHING before it was brought to pass by CREATION’S own actions. The point being that since you cannot reconcile the meaning of “when” to GOD’S existential reality, we must reassess exactly what we mean by “God preordained”, and I would argue, we cannot logically conclude a certain specific “moment” or “when” to God’s actions. From God’s frame of reference, He cannot do anything before or after anything, and his knowledge is also not bound by a linear “arrow of time”.
The point of this is to say that God’s foreknowledge has nothing to do with the free volition of man. Man is free (and MUST) do and choose and act on his own behalf, and he is not constrained in his will by the idea that God knows (read: DETERMINES) the “future”. There is no future for God to know UNTIL it is brought to pass by the willful actions of man.